Latest 220-1101 Actual Free Exam Questions Updated 870 Questions
Free 220-1101 Exam Braindumps certification guide Q&A
CompTIA 220-1101 exam is the first of two exams required to obtain the CompTIA A+ certification. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification is designed to validate the skills and knowledge required to perform entry-level IT support roles. 220-1101 exam covers a broad range of IT topics, including hardware, software, networking, security, and troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 518
SIMULATION
A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch cords if necessary.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool.
part 2
An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel, and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to create a link.
The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair.
Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation
Explanation:
Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.
Part 2
NEW QUESTION # 519
A hardware technician is configuring a laptop, and the network administrator requires the network settings to be static. The technician successfully pings the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC path. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
- A. IP address
- B. Domain Name System
- C. Gateway
- D. Subnet
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 520
Which of the following should the label on a network jack faceplate refer to?
- A. Patch panel port
- B. MAC address
- C. Switch port in use
- D. VLAN identification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A network jack faceplate is a device that covers and protects the network jack or outlet on a wall or a floor. A network jack or outlet is a physical interface that allows a network cable, such as an Ethernet cable, to be plugged into a network device, such as a computer or a printer. A network jack faceplate usually has one or more ports that correspond to different types of network cables, such as RJ-45, RJ-11, or coaxial.
A label on a network jack faceplate should refer to the patch panel port that the network jack or outlet is connected to. A patch panel is a device that connects multiple network cables in an organized and convenient way. A patch panel has a number of ports that correspond to different cables, such as Ethernet, coaxial, or fiber-optic cables. A patch panel can help simplify the wiring and management of a network, as well as provide flexibility and scalability for adding or changing network devices.
By labeling the network jack faceplate with the patch panel port, the network technician can easily identify and trace the cable that is connected to the network jack or outlet. This can help to troubleshoot and resolve network issues, such as connectivity, performance, or configuration problems. It can also help to avoid confusion or errors when installing or modifying network cables.
NEW QUESTION # 521
Some users are unable to access resources on the file server. A technician reviews the server network information and finds the following settings:
Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
- A. The route was removed from the border router.
- B. The server lost power during a recent storm and did not resume operation.
- C. Applicable ports have been closed during routine hardening.
- D. Server gateway settings are incorrect.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Given the network information for the server "InternalToolCentral" with an IP address of
"192.130.230.5" and a subnet mask of "255.255.255.0", the gateway address should be within the same network range. However, the gateway address is listed as "192.130.230.1", which is correct and within the same subnet. Therefore, the issue is not with the gateway settings. The DNS servers are listed as "8.8.8.8" and "4.2.2.1", which are public DNS servers and should be able to resolve domain names correctly if they are reachable. The open ports listed include 25 (SMTP), 80 (HTTP), 110 (POP3), 443 (HTTPS), and 3306 (MySQL), which are standard ports for their respective services. Considering the provided options and the network settings, the most likely explanation for users being unable to access resources on the file server is: A. Applicable ports have been closed during routine hardening. This could prevent users from connecting to the necessary services on the file server.
NEW QUESTION # 522
A customer reports that access to the network fileshare has become much slower than usual, but local applications do not seem to have trouble. The technician checks the download bandwidth and finds no issues.
Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
- A. RAID array drive health
- B. Amount of local drive space
- C. Level of network utilization
- D. Customer use of two-factor authentication
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 523
When installing three 2.4GHz access points in close proximity, which of the following channel selections would be BEST?
- A. 2, 4, 7
- B. 2, 3, 9
- C. 8, 10, 11
- D. 1, 6, 11
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 524
A user needs to upgrade a PC in order to run the latest 3-D design software. Which of the following components should the user upgrade to best meet this requirement?
- A. Power supply
- B. CPU
- C. Motherboard
- D. Graphics card
- E. Memory
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Graphics card.
A graphics card is a component that handles the processing and rendering of 3D graphics on a PC. A graphics card can significantly improve the performance and quality of 3D design software, as it can handle complex calculations and display high-resolution images faster than the CPU. A graphics card can also support features such as ray tracing, anti-aliasing, and texture mapping, which can enhance the realism and detail of 3D models.
A: Motherboard. This is not a correct answer. A motherboard is a component that connects and communicates with all the other components in a PC. A motherboard does not directly affect the performance or quality of
3D design software, unless it is incompatible or outdated with the other components.
B: CPU. This is not a correct answer. A CPU is a component that executes instructions and calculations for various programs on a PC. A CPU can affect the performance and quality of 3D design software, but not as much as a graphics card. A CPU is more important for tasks such as compiling, encoding, or multitasking, which are not specific to 3D design.
C: Power supply. This is not a correct answer. A power supply is a component that converts AC power from the wall outlet to DC power for the PC components. A power supply does not directly affect the performance or quality of 3D design software, unless it is insufficient or faulty to provide enough power for the other components.
E: Memory. This is not a correct answer. Memory is a component that stores data temporarily for fast access by the CPU and other components. Memory can affect the performance and quality of 3D design software, but not as much as a graphics card. Memory is more important for tasks such as loading, saving, or switching between programs, which are not specific to 3D design.
Reference: System requirements | Substance 3D Designer1, 12 Best Free 3D Modeling Software (For Beginners) 20232, System requirements for Autodesk 3ds Max 20213.
NEW QUESTION # 525
A customer has contacted you about building two new desktops. The first desktop will be a gaming workstation. The customer requirements include:
Playing the newest games at a high frame rate
Fast game load times
Enough storage to have several games installed at once
High-end audio
No concern about cost
Running the current Windows OS
The second workstation will be a family workstation. The requirements include:
Capability for word processing, videoconferencing, and basic web surfing Minimal cost, as long as it meets the requirements Running the current Windows OS
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 526
Which of the following are benefits of application virtualization? (Select two).
- A. OS performance is superior.
- B. The network works more quickly.
- C. The overall IT cost goes down.
- D. Upgrading applications is easier.
- E. RAM works more efficiently.
- F. Applications are easier to learn.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The correct answers are D. The overall IT cost goes down and F. Upgrading applications is easier.
Application virtualization is a technology that allows users to run applications without installing them on their devices. The applications are stored and executed on a remote server, and the users can access them through a network connection. Application virtualization has several benefits, such as12:
*The overall IT cost goes down: Application virtualization reduces the need for hardware, software, and maintenance costs, as the applications are centralized and managed on the server side. This also saves energy and space, as fewer physical machines are required to run the applications. Additionally, application virtualization can reduce licensing costs, as the applications can be delivered on-demand and based on usage.
*Upgrading applications is easier: Application virtualization simplifies the process of updating and patching applications, as the changes can be made on the server side and pushed to the users instantly. This eliminates the need for manual installation and configuration on each device, and ensures that all users have the latest version of the applications.
Other benefits of application virtualization include123:
*Allows the running of legacy apps: Application virtualization can enable users to run applications that are developed for older or incompatible operating systems, such as Windows 7 or XP. This can extend the lifespan of legacy applications and avoid compatibility issues.
*Enables cross-platform operations: Application virtualization can allow users to run applications that are designed for different platforms, such as Windows apps on iOS, Android, macOS, or Chrome OS. This can increase the accessibility and mobility of the applications and enhance the user experience.
*Improves security and compliance: Application virtualization can isolate the applications from the underlying operating system and hardware, preventing malware or unauthorized access from affecting them.
This can also protect the data and settings of the applications from being tampered with or lost. Furthermore, application virtualization can help enforce compliance policies and regulations, as the applications can be controlled and monitored by the server.
References:
1: 5 Benefits of Virtualization - IBM Blog
2: Benefits of Application Virtualization - AppsAnywhere
3: What is Application Virtualization? | VMware Glossary
NEW QUESTION # 527
A technician is troubleshooting a PC that has been experiencing random system crashes. The technician has already checked the hard drive and the RAM, and both were in good working order. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to troubleshoot the system crashes?
- A. Disable the USB ports
- B. Decrease the RAM timings.
- C. Replace the PSU
- D. Test the fan speed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A PSU (power supply unit) is a component that converts the AC power from the wall outlet into DC power that the PC components can use. A faulty or failing PSU can cause random system crashes, as well as other problems such as noise, overheating, or no power at all. A PSU can fail due to various reasons, such as age, dust, power surges, or poor quality.
To troubleshoot a PSU, the technician can use a multimeter to measure the voltage output of the PSU connectors. The voltage should be within the acceptable range of the specifications. For example, the 12V rail should be between 11.4V and 12.6V. If the voltage is too low or too high, the PSU is likely defective and needs to be replaced.
Alternatively, the technician can try swapping the PSU with a known good one and see if the system crashes persist. If the system works fine with a different PSU, then the original PSU is the problem and should be replaced.
The other options are not likely to fix the random system crashes. Testing the fan speed may help to diagnose overheating issues, but it is not related to the PSU. Disabling the USB ports may help to eliminate potential conflicts with USB devices, but it is not related to the PSU. Decreasing the RAM timings may help to improve performance and stability, but it is not related to the PSU.
References:
Fix Random PC Crashes: 10 Steps to Identify and Fix Issues
Why Does Windows Crash? The 9 Most Common Reasons
NEW QUESTION # 528
A technician is designing a new laptop for a local construction company. Company employees will move the laptop around frequently and are likely to drop the laptop while working. Which of the following drives should the technician install to mitigate for potential damage?
- A. SCSI
- B. S.M.A.R.T
- C. RAID
- D. Solid-state
Answer: D
Explanation:
Solid-state drives (SSDs) are the best choice for laptops that are likely to drop while working, as they have no moving parts and are more resistant to shock and vibration than hard-disk drives (HDDs). SSDs also offer faster performance, lower power consumption, and less noise and heat than HDDs. SSDs use flash memory chips to store data, unlike HDDs that use spinning platters and read/write heads. SSDs can be connected to laptops using various interfaces, such as SATA, PCIe, or NVMe.
The other options are not suitable for this scenario. S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a feature that monitors the health and performance of HDDs and SSDs, but it does not prevent damage from dropping. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is an interface that connects various devices, such as HDDs, SSDs, scanners, and printers, to a computer, but it is not commonly used in laptops.
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks) is a system that combines multiple HDDs or SSDs into a single logical unit, providing redundancy, performance, or both, but it is not feasible or practical to implement RAID in a laptop.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
* The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
* The Best SSDs for Upgrading Your Laptop in 2023 | PCMag3
NEW QUESTION # 529
Several storms cause mission-critical servers to go offline unexpectedly A server also goes offline suddenly due to haroNvare failure Upon assessment the company purchases new UPSs to condition power and allow the OSs to shut down gracefully in the event of a power failure However, the UPSs are delayed due to supply chain issues Which of the following can balance a cost-effective solution with uptime requirements?
- A. Activating a hot site
- B. Installing redundant PSUs
- C. Purchasing backup generators
- D. Increasing input voltage
Answer: B
Explanation:
C: Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):
Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.
This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.
Incorrect Options:
A: Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.
B: Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.
D: Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost- effective solution for this scenario.
Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1101), Domain 5.3 - Power-related troubleshooting.
NEW QUESTION # 530
A user reports a monitor, keyboard, mouse. and headset are no longer functioning. The user has restarted the laptop and tested an alternative headset and monitor, but the issue persists. The technician notices the user has a printer. USB-C hub, and AC adapter plugged into the laptop. Which of the following should the technician do to MOST likely resolve the issue?
- A. Verify the AC adaptor voltage.
- B. Make sure the printer is not drawing too much power.
- C. Repair the operating system.
- D. Reinstall the drivers for affected devices.
- E. Replace the user's USB-C hub.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the user's USB-C hub is faulty or incompatible with the laptop. The USB-C hub is a device that allows the user to connect multiple peripherals to the laptop using a single USB-C port. If the hub is not working properly, it may prevent the monitor, keyboard, mouse, and headset from functioning. The technician should replace the user's USB-C hub with a new one that is compatible with the laptop and test the peripherals again. Verifying the AC adapter voltage will not help with the issue, as the AC adapter is used to power the laptop, not the peripherals. Repairing the operating system will not help either, as the issue is not related to software. Reinstalling the drivers for affected devices may not help, as the issue may be caused by the hub, not the devices. Making sure the printer is not drawing too much power is irrelevant, as the printer is not connected to the hub or affecting the other peripherals. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-usb-c
NEW QUESTION # 531
A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?
- A. Device interference
- B. Hidden SSID
- C. High ISP latency
- D. Ethernet port flapping
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 532
Every time a user double-clicks on a specific icon, the desktop computer freezes and must be forced to shut down. The same issue occurs when the user starts the system in safe mode. A technician runs diagnostic software and detects a hardware failure, but the software does not indicate which component failed. Which of the following should the technician perform to isolate the faulty hardware?
- A. Disconnect some removable hardware and keep only the power supply connected. Perform a power drain. Reconnect the parts one by one, testing the computer after each part is reconnected to the system.
- B. Disconnect all removable hardware but retain the minimum parts needed to POST. Power on the computer and test it. If the issue persists, reconnect the parts one by one, testing the computer after each part is reconnected to the system.
- C. Disconnect all the removable hardware and replace the motherboard. Reconnect the parts into the new motherboard, testing the computer after each part is connected to the system.
- D. Disconnect all the hardware and then reconnect it. Perform a registry clean and run a full virus scan. Test the computer to check if the issue is fixed.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 533
A technician is replacing the motherboard of a workstation for a user who runs multiple large applications at the same time. Which of the following motherboard specifications would provide the most significant improvement in performance?
- A. Number of PCI slots
- B. Number of HDMI ports
- C. Number of USB ports
- D. Number of DIMM slots
Answer: D
Explanation:
The number of DIMM slots on a motherboard determines how much RAM can be installed on the system. RAM is a crucial component for running multiple large applications at the same time, as it allows the CPU to access data faster and avoid swapping to the hard drive. Having more DIMM slots means that more RAM can be added, which can improve the performance and responsiveness of the system.
NEW QUESTION # 534
While configuring a new network printer, a technician observes that the router cannot use a specific static IP address due to security restrictions. Which of the following should the technician use to ensure the printer always gets the same IP address even if the router is restarted?
- A. Exclusion
- B. Lease
- C. Scope
- D. Reservation
Answer: D
Explanation:
When configuring a network device like a printer, assigning it a static IP address ensures that it always uses the same IP address. If a static IP cannot be set due to security restrictions, the next best solution is to configure a reservation in the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server. This reservation ensures that the device (in this case, the printer) always receives the same IP address based on its MAC address, even if the router restarts.
* A. Reservation: A DHCP reservation ties a specific IP address to the MAC address of a device, ensuring it always receives the same IP address from the DHCP server.
Why the other options are incorrect:
* B. Scope: A DHCP scope defines the range of IP addresses that can be assigned to devices. It doesn't ensure that a specific device always gets the same IP.
* C. Lease: A lease refers to the length of time a device is assigned an IP address from the DHCP server.
It doesn't guarantee that the same IP will be re-assigned after the lease expires.
* D. Exclusion: An exclusion in DHCP configuration excludes specific IP addresses from being assigned dynamically. This is used to prevent certain addresses from being given out but doesn't ensure a device will always get the same IP.
This topic is covered under the Networking domain of the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam.
NEW QUESTION # 535
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that is unable to browse the internet when connected to the company's wireless network. The technician has verified network connectivity is functional when using an Ethernet cable. Which of the following should the technician use to check if the laptop's wireless NIC is functional?
- A. Near-field communication
- B. Ethernet tap
- C. Hotspot
- D. Spectrum analyzer
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hotspot is a wireless network that is typically created by a smartphone or mobile hotspot device. It can be used to provide internet access to other devices, such as laptops and tablets.
To use a hotspot to check if the laptop's wireless NIC is functional, the technician can connect the laptop to the hotspot and try to browse the internet. If the laptop is able to browse the internet, then the wireless NIC is functional.
NEW QUESTION # 536
A user contacted the help desk about files that disappeared from a laptop. The technician discovered during troubleshooting that the drive was corrupt due to a possible mechanical failure, but the files were still readable. Which of the following actions did the technician take during troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
- A. Ran CHKDSK
- B. Updated the firmware
- C. Made sure the replacement drive was compatible
- D. Checked S.M.A.R.T. information
- E. Increased the page file size
- F. Reseated the HDD connector
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a feature of hard drives that monitors various parameters, such as temperature, error rate, spin-up time, and seek time, to assess the health and performance of the drive. S.M.A.R.T. can also predict the likelihood of failure based on the historical trends of these parameters. A technician can check the S.M.A.R.T.
information of a hard drive using various tools, such as the BIOS, the operating system, or third- party software. Checking the S.M.A.R.T. information can help the technician diagnose the cause and severity of the drive corruption and determine the best course of action.
CHKDSK (Check Disk) is a command-line utility that scans the file system and the disk surface for errors and attempts to fix them. CHKDSK can also recover readable data from bad sectors and mark them as unusable. A technician can run CHKDSK on a corrupt drive using various options, such as /f (fix errors), /r (recover data), or /x (dismount the drive). Running CHKDSK can help the technician repair the drive corruption and retrieve the missing files.
NEW QUESTION # 537
Which of the following network services allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address?
- A. DHCP
- B. UTM
- C. LOAP
- D. DNS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address. DHCP can also assign other network configuration settings to devices automatically.
NEW QUESTION # 538
A natural disaster occurred, and the storage system for the development team is unrecoverable. The technician is preparing replacement storage arrays that include a hypervisor with the capacity to support several virtual machines. Two separate bays are available, and both should be utilized.
Requirements for the primary array include the following:
* No need to be scalable
* Very fast on reads
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Ability to function with only one drive
* Easily recoverable data
* High redundancy
* Minimum number of drives
Requirements for the secondary array include the following:
* Fault tolerance of one drive
* Total space of 600G3
* Best write performance
* Minimum number of drives
Instructions:
Drag and Drop the appropriate Hard Drives. Then Open each array to complete the configuration.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation:
Primary Array:
Drag and drop two 120 GB SSD hard drives to the primary array bay.
Open the primary array and select RAID 1 as the RAID level. RAID 1 provides fault tolerance of one drive, ability to function with only one drive, easily recoverable data, high redundancy, and very fast on reads. It also does not need to be scalable and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 1.
Confirm the configuration and close the primary array.
Secondary Array:
Drag and drop two 300 GB SSD hard drives to the secondary array bay.
Open the secondary array and select RAID 0 as the RAID level. RAID 0 provides the best write performance and uses the minimum number of drives (two) for RAID 0. It also provides a total space of 600 GB (300 GB x
2), which meets the requirement.
Confirm the configuration and close the secondary array.
You have completed the configuration of the storage arrays.
NEW QUESTION # 539
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