[UPDATED 2026] Read ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Study Guide Cover to Cover as Literally
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APMG-International ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam Syllabus Topics:
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| Topic 2 |
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| Topic 3 |
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| Topic 4 |
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| Topic 5 |
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| Topic 6 |
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NEW QUESTION # 14
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
When planning the ISMS, the organization is specifically required to plan actions to address risks and opportunities and how to [ ? ] these actions.
- A. evaluate the effectiveness of
- B. apply competent resources to
- C. communicate
- D. improve the effectiveness of
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.1 (Planning) states:
"The organization shall plan:
d) actions to address these risks and opportunities; and
e) how to:
* integrate and implement the actions into its ISMS processes; and
* evaluate the effectiveness of these actions."
This confirms the missing words are"evaluate the effectiveness of". Communication (A), applying resources (B), and improving effectiveness (C) are important concepts elsewhere but not the direct requirement stated in this clause.
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which activity is an operational planning and control requirement?
- A. Perform information security risk assessments at planned intervals
- B. Review the consequences of unintended changes
- C. Scheduling of second party audits
- D. Document information security objectives
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 8.1 (Operational planning and control) requires organizations to:
"Ensure that changes are controlled. The organization shall review the consequences of unintended changes, taking action to mitigate any adverse effects, as necessary." This requirement ensures that operational processes are planned, controlled, and adjusted where unexpected changes occur. Risk assessments (B) are covered in Clause 6.1.2 (Planning), not operations. Scheduling second-party audits (C) is not an ISMS requirement but part of supplier/customer arrangements. Documenting objectives (D) belongs to Clause 6.2 (Planning).
Thus, the required operational planning and control activity is A: Review the consequences of unintended changes.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which attribute is NOT a required focus of continual ISMS improvement?
- A. Adequacy
- B. Effectiveness
- C. Suitability
- D. Importance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 10.2 (Continual Improvement) specifies that the organization must"continually improve the suitability, adequacy and effectiveness of the information security management system." This makes it clear that three attributes are explicitly required to be addressed:
* Suitability: ensuring the ISMS continues to meet organizational needs in changing contexts.
* Adequacy: ensuring the ISMS covers the necessary scope and provides sufficient control coverage.
* Effectiveness: ensuring the ISMS achieves intended outcomes in protecting information security.
The word"importance"is not part of the continual improvement requirement. Importance is implicit in prioritization of risks and actions, but it is not a required continual improvement attribute in ISO/IEC 27001.
Therefore, optionD: Importanceis the correct choice as it is not specified.
This distinction reinforces that continual improvement is not about subjective importance, but about systematic enhancement of the ISMS'ssuitability, adequacy, and effectiveness.
NEW QUESTION # 17
What is a requirement for a corrective action made in response to a nonconformity?
- A. They always eliminate the cause of the nonconformity
- B. They do NOT change the organization's information security policies
- C. They are appropriate to the effects of the nonconformity
- D. They are proportionate to the likelihood of the nonconformity recurring
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 10.1 (Nonconformity and corrective action) specifies:
"The organization shall react to the nonconformity and, as applicable: take action to control and correct it; deal with the consequences; evaluate the need for action to eliminate the cause(s)...
Corrective actions shall be appropriate to the effects of the nonconformities encountered." This confirms optionB. Option A is inaccurate-ISO requires actions appropriate toeffects, not probability alone. Option C is false-policies may need updating to correct nonconformities. Option D is incorrect, as not every cause can always be eliminated; residual issues may exist.
Thus, the verified requirement isB.
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which statement describes a requirement for information security objectives?
- A. They shall be contractually transferred to third parties
- B. They shall be consistent with the information security policy
- C. They shall all be measurable
- D. They shall be reviewed at least annually
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.2 (Information security objectives) requires that objectives:
* "be consistent with the information security policy"
* "be measurable (if practicable)"
* "take into account applicable information security requirements"
* "be monitored, communicated, and updated as appropriate."
From this, option A is correct since consistency with policy is an explicit requirement. Option B is incorrect because the standard allows objectives to be measurable "if practicable" (not mandatory for all). Option C is incorrect-objectives are not transferred contractually to third parties, though third-party agreements may include security requirements. Option D is incorrect because the standard requires regular review "as appropriate," not a fixed annual cycle.
Thus, the verified requirement isA: They shall be consistent with the information security policy.
NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the definition of a threat according to ISO/IEC 27000?
- A. A single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events
- B. The risk remaining after risk treatment
- C. A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization
- D. A weakness of an asset or a control that can be exploited
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.74, athreatis defined as:
"Potential cause of an unwanted incident, which can result in harm to a system or organization." This definition directly matches option A.
* Option B refers to an "information security incident" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.32).
* Option C describes a "vulnerability" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.67).
* Option D refers to "residual risk" (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.61).
The standard emphasizes that threats exploit vulnerabilities, causing incidents that can harm information confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Correctly identifying threats is critical for risk assessment (Clause
6.1.2). Thus, the correct definition per ISO/IEC 27000 isA.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which statement describes the Classification of information control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Ensures that information is classified based on confidentiality, integrity and availability
- B. Ensures that all information assets are labelled with their classification
- C. Ensures the rules to control physical and logical access apply to assets
- D. Ensures that security perimeters are used to protect assets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.12 (Classification of information) states:
"Information should be classified according to the information security needs of the organization based on confidentiality, integrity and availability." This aligns directly with option B. Option A (labelling) is a separate control (Annex A.5.13). Option C (security perimeters) is under physical controls (Annex A.7.1). Option D (access control rules) relates to Annex A.5.15 and A.8.2.
Thus, the verified correct statement for the Classification of information control isB.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which statement describes the control for the Compliance with policies, rules and standards for information security within Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Return assets to their legal owners
- B. Maintain contact with legal authorities
- C. Regular review of contractual compliance
- D. Regular review of compliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.36 (Compliance with policies, rules and standards for information security) requires:
"Compliance with the organization's information security policies, rules and standards for information security should be regularly reviewed." This directly matches option A. Option B refers to contractual compliance, which is part of supplier management controls (Annex A.5.19). Option C relates to Annex A.5.7 (Contact with authorities). Option D refers to asset return controls (Annex A.5.9).
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which item is required to be included in an information security policy?
- A. A plan for the continual improvement of the information security management system
- B. A framework enabling concerns with the information security policy to be addressed
- C. A commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security
- D. A Statement of Applicability which defines the necessary controls to be implemented
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 5.2 (Information security policy) requires that the policy:
* "includes information security objectives (or provides a framework for setting them)"
* "includes a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security"
* "includes a commitment to continual improvement of the ISMS."
Among the listed options, the exact mandatory requirement is"a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security". Option B partially reflects Clause 5.2 (commitment to continual improvement), but the wording given in the standard prioritizes the satisfaction of applicable requirements (e.g., legal, regulatory, contractual). Option C is not a policy requirement. Option D (Statement of Applicability) is a separate mandatory document (Clause 6.1.3) and not part of the policy itself.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
According to ISO/IEC 27000, the definition of risk [?] is a "process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk."
- A. Management
- B. Assessment
- C. Analysis
- D. Evaluation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:
ISO/IEC 27000 defines:
* Risk analysis: "process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk" (Clause 3.58).
* Risk assessment: the overall process of risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.
* Risk evaluation: compares results of risk analysis against risk criteria to determine priority.
* Risk management: coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk.
Therefore, the missing word in the given definition is"analysis".
This is important for ISMS implementation: organizations must understand the distinctions. Risk analysis is the core technical evaluation stage, while assessment is the broader process including evaluation, and management refers to the overall governance of risks.
Thus, the correct verified answer isB: Analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which output is a required result from risk analysis?
- A. Prioritized risks for treatment
- B. Risk acceptance criteria
- C. Determined levels of risk
- D. Risk treatment control options
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 (d) states that duringrisk analysis, the organization shall:
* "assess the potential consequences that would result if the risks identified... were to materialize;"
* "assess the realistic likelihood of the occurrence of the risks identified;"
* "determine the levels of risk."
This makes it clear that the requiredoutput of risk analysis is the determined levels of risk. Risk acceptance criteria (A) are set earlier in 6.1.2(a), treatment control options (C) belong to 6.1.3, and prioritization (D) is part of risk evaluation (6.1.2 e). Therefore, the verified correct output isB: Determined levels of risk.
NEW QUESTION # 25
Who is required to ensure that staff are supported so that they can contribute to the information security management system?
- A. Management responsible for each area of operation
- B. Auditors who audit each area of operation
- C. Top management of the organization
- D. ISO/IEC 27001 practitioners within the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires that:
"Top management shall demonstrate leadership and commitment with respect to the information security management system by... ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available... and supporting persons to contribute to the effectiveness of the ISMS." This makes it explicit thattop managementhas the responsibility to ensure personnel are supported so they can contribute to the ISMS. Option B (line management) may provide local support, but ultimate accountability rests with top management. Auditors (C) only evaluate compliance, not provide support.
Practitioners (D) help implement, but they don't bear formal responsibility under the standard.
Thus, the verified answer isA: Top management of the organization.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Identify the missing word(s) in the following control relating to the Policies for information security control.
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, [ ? ] and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur."
- A. published
- B. established and maintained
- C. communicated to
- D. published, communicated to
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) states:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur." This confirms that the missing words are"published, communicated to."The control emphasizes not just defining and approving policies but ensuring they are actively distributed and communicated so that relevant stakeholders are aware of and acknowledge them. Options A, B, and D are partial but incomplete.
Thus, the correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 27
To whom does the scope of the Terms and conditions of employment control apply?
- A. Contractors only
- B. Personnel and the organization
- C. All employees, contractors and third-party users
- D. Employees only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.6.1 (Terms and conditions of employment) states:
"The contractual agreements with employees and contractors shall state their and the organization's responsibilities for information security." This means the control applies not just to employees, but also contractors and, where relevant, third-party users who are subject to contractual obligations with the organization. The goal is to ensure thatall parties engaged in work under the organization's control understand their security responsibilities before, during, and after employment or contract engagement.
Options A and B are too narrow, excluding key groups. Option C misrepresents the scope by implying a mutual responsibility but not identifying the individuals covered. The explicit scope includesemployees, contractors, and third-party users.
Therefore, the correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
- B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- C. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
- D. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which information is required to be included in the Statement of Applicability?
- A. The scope and boundaries of the ISMS
- B. The justification for including each information security control
- C. The criteria against which risk will be evaluated
- D. The risk assessment approach of the organization
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (d) requires that the organization"produce a Statement of Applicability that contains the necessary controls (see Annex A), and justification for inclusions, whether they are implemented or not, and the justification for exclusions." This is the defining requirement of the SoA: it documents which Annex A controls are relevant, which are implemented, and the justification for inclusion/exclusion. While the ISMS scope (A) is documented in Clause 4.3, and risk evaluation criteria (C) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, these do not belong in the SoA. The SoA does not describe the full risk assessment approach (B); that is part of the risk assessment methodology.
Therefore, the mandatory requirement for the SoA isjustification for including (or excluding) each information security control.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which benefit is NOT relevant by implementing an ISMS for an organization?
- A. Information security staff will be qualified to ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation level
- B. Information security risks are assessed and the probability and/or impact reduced
- C. Information security controls are tailored to suit the organization's specific circumstances
- D. Information security compliance will increase stakeholder trust in the organization
Answer: A
Explanation:
The benefits of implementing an ISMS under ISO/IEC 27001 are well established. Clause 0.1 (General) explains that an ISMS provides asystematic approach to managing sensitive informationand "preserves confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information by applying a risk management process and gives confidence to interested parties that risks are adequately managed." Option A is correct as a benefit, since trust and confidence from stakeholders is an outcome of compliance.
Option C is also a benefit, since controls are chosen and tailored based on organizational context and risk assessment (Clause 6.1.3). Option D reflects another real benefit-reducing the probability and/or impact of incidents through effective risk management.
However,staff qualifications (option B)are not guaranteed benefits of implementing an ISMS. While training and competence (Clause 7.2) are required, the standard does not require or provide ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation-level certification for staff. That is an external training/certification scheme, not an ISMS outcome.
Therefore, the benefitNOT relevantto implementing ISO/IEC 27001 isB.
NEW QUESTION # 31
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