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NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following best describes an incident handler's primary responsibility during the incident handling process?
- A. Collecting evidence to support legal actions
- B. Assessing the root cause of the incident
- C. Implementing preventive measures to avoid future incidents
- D. Restoring affected systems to their normal operations
Answer: D
Explanation:
The primary responsibility of an incident handler during the incident handling process is to restore affected systems to their normal operations. While collecting evidence, assessing the root cause, and implementing preventive measures are also important tasks, the immediate focus should be on reducing the impact of the incident and restoring normal functionality to minimize downtime and disruption.
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following is an example of a public cloud service?
- A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
- C. Amazon Web Services (AWS)
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Amazon Web Services (AWS) is a well-known public cloud service provider. Public cloud services are provided by third-party vendors and are available to multiple users over the internet.
NEW QUESTION # 142
Which of the following best describes a vulnerability in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. A method used to attack a network or system.
- B. A tool used to test the security of a network or system.
- C. A security feature implemented to protect a network or system.
- D. A weakness in a network or system that can be exploited by attackers.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A vulnerability refers to a weakness in a network or system that can be exploited by attackers. It can be a flaw or an oversight in the design, implementation, or configuration of a system, which may allow unauthorized access, data leakage, or other malicious activities.
NEW QUESTION # 143
Which of the following is an example of a secure remote access technology?
- A. FTP
- B. SNMP
- C. Telnet
- D. SSH
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSH (Secure Shell) is a secure remote access protocol that provides encrypted communication between remote devices. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plaintext, SSH encrypts the data, making it more secure for remote access to devices or systems. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) and SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) are not specifically designed for remote access and do not provide the same level of security as SSH.
NEW QUESTION # 144
What is the main motivation for attackers to conduct cyber attacks?
- A. Revenge
- B. Curiosity
- C. Financial gain
- D. Knowledge
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary motivation for many cyber attackers is financial gain. By conducting cyber attacks, attackers may aim to steal sensitive information, such as credit card details or personal data, which they can then use or sell for financial profit.
NEW QUESTION # 145
You need to transfer configuration files to a router across an unsecured network.
Which protocol should you use to encrypt the files in transit?
- A. TFTP
- B. Telnet
- C. SSH
- D. HTTP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide highlights that SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted communication for secure remote access and file transfer (using SCP or SFTP) over unsecured networks. This ensures confidentiality and integrity of the files in transit.
"SSH encrypts all data exchanged between client and server, protecting credentials and file contents from interception. It is the preferred protocol for secure device management and file transfers across untrusted networks." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Secure Remote Management section, Cisco Networking Academy) A (Telnet) transmits data in plaintext.
B (HTTP) is unencrypted web traffic.
C (TFTP) is a simple, insecure file transfer protocol without encryption.
D is correct: SSH secures configuration file transfers across insecure networks.
NEW QUESTION # 146
Which of the following best describes the relationship between a business continuity plan (BCP) and a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
- A. A BCP and a DRP are two different terms for the same plan
- B. A BCP and a DRP are separate and unrelated plans within the realm of cybersecurity
- C. A BCP focuses on maintaining essential functions during a disaster, while a DRP focuses on data backup and restoration
- D. A BCP focuses on data backup and restoration, while a DRP focuses on maintaining essential functions during a disaster
Answer: C
Explanation:
While both business continuity plans (BCPs) and disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are essential components of a comprehensive cybersecurity strategy, they have distinct focuses. A BCP primarily deals with the maintenance of essential functions during a disaster, ensuring business continuity, while a DRP primarily deals with data backup, restoration, and recovery processes. Both plans work in tandem to ensure effective cybersecurity practices during a disaster scenario.
NEW QUESTION # 147
When should a firewall rule triggering block external access to a network resource be escalated?
- A. Never, as it is a normal security function of a firewall.
- B. Always, regardless of authorization.
- C. Only if the access attempt is from a known malicious IP address.
- D. Only if the access was authorized.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Blocking external access to a network resource is a normal security function of a firewall and does not necessarily require escalation. Firewalls are designed to monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined rules and configurations. However, if the rule is triggered unexpectedly or causes disruption to critical services, it may be appropriate to escalate the issue for further investigation or adjustment of the firewall rule.
NEW QUESTION # 148
What is the highest level of risk for a cybersecurity vulnerability that poses an immediate and significant threat to critical assets, systems, or data?
- A. Extremely high risk
- B. High risk
- C. Medium risk
- D. Low risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
The highest level of risk for a cybersecurity vulnerability that poses an immediate and significant threat to critical assets, systems, or data is categorized as an extremely high risk. Vulnerabilities at this level represent a severe and imminent danger to an organization's key resources and require immediate attention and mitigation efforts to minimize potential harm or losses.
NEW QUESTION # 149
Your home network seems to have slowed down considerably. You look at the home router GUI and notice that an unknown host is attached to the network.
What should you do to prevent this specific host from attaching to the network again?
- A. Change the network SSID.
- B. Implement MAC address filtering.
- C. Block the host IP address.
- D. Create an IP access control list.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity course explains that MAC address filtering is a network access control method that allows only approved device hardware addresses to connect. While not foolproof against spoofing, it can block a specific device from reconnecting to a small home network.
"MAC address filtering restricts network access to devices whose unique hardware addresses are explicitly allowed. This can be used to block known unauthorized devices from reconnecting." (CCST Cybersecurity, Basic Network Security Concepts, Wireless Security Controls section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: IP ACLs are better for controlling traffic types, not blocking specific devices at the router level.
B is correct: It prevents the device's hardware address from reconnecting.
C is temporary since the host can get a new IP via DHCP.
D may hide the network but will not stop a determined attacker who can still detect it.
NEW QUESTION # 150
Which type of encryption algorithm uses two different keys: a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption?
- A. Symmetric encryption
- B. Asymmetric encryption
- C. HMAC algorithm
- D. Hashing algorithm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key encryption, uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key is used for encryption, while the private key is used for decryption. This allows for secure communication over an insecure channel, as the public key can be shared freely without compromising the security of the message.
NEW QUESTION # 151
Which of the following is the primary objective of vulnerability assessment in cybersecurity?
- A. To identify and remove all vulnerabilities from a system.
- B. To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security controls.
- C. To determine the likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited.
- D. To assess the impact of identified vulnerabilities on the system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary objective of vulnerability assessment is to determine the probability of a vulnerability being exploited. It involves identifying and prioritizing vulnerabilities, so resources can be allocated to fix the most critical ones first.
NEW QUESTION # 152
During a vulnerability assessment, what is the purpose of making recommendations?
- A. To obtain management approval for security measures.
- B. To allocate responsibility for fixing the vulnerabilities.
- C. To mitigate identified vulnerabilities.
- D. To justify the need for additional cybersecurity resources.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The purpose of making recommendations during a vulnerability assessment is to provide guidance on how to mitigate or fix the identified vulnerabilities. These recommendations may include suggested actions, such as applying patches, updating configurations, or implementing additional security controls.
NEW QUESTION # 153
Your company is creating a BYOD policy to allow employees to join their personal smartphones to the company network.
Which three requirements are commonly included in a BYOD policy? (Choose 3.)
- A. Encryption of stored confidential corporate data
- B. Deletion of all personal data from the phone
- C. Installation of secure apps only
- D. Configuration of a strong password
- E. Upgrade of data plan to maximum available
- F. Synchronization of phone lock screen password with network access password
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
The CCST Cybersecurity Study Guide explains that a BYOD policy (Bring Your Own Device) should outline security requirements for personally owned devices connecting to the corporate network. Common requirements include:
Device encryption for stored sensitive corporate data.
Strong password or PIN configuration for device access.
Restriction to secure and approved applications to reduce malware risk.
"BYOD policies typically mandate strong authentication, encryption of sensitive corporate data on personal devices, and installation of secure or approved applications. The goal is to protect corporate information while respecting personal ownership of the device." (CCST Cybersecurity, Endpoint Security Concepts, BYOD Security section, Cisco Networking Academy) A is incorrect: BYOD policies do not require deletion of personal data unless wiping after separation.
B is not a common requirement due to privacy and technical limitations.
E (upgrading data plans) is unrelated to security.
NEW QUESTION # 154
Which of the following is a characteristic of a network-based firewall?
- A. Requires software installed on client devices
- B. Operates at the data link layer
- C. Inspects and filters traffic at the application layer
- D. Provides protection against external threats only
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. A network-based firewall inspects and filters traffic at the network layer, not the application layer.
Option 2: Incorrect. A network-based firewall operates at the network layer, not the data link layer.
Option 3: Correct. A network-based firewall provides protection against both external and internal threats.
Option 4: Incorrect. A network-based firewall does not require software installed on client devices.
NEW QUESTION # 155
Which of the following is a feature of cloud computing?
- A. Physical server maintenance
- B. Hardware provisioning
- C. Data encryption
- D. On-premises hosting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option 1: Incorrect. On-premises hosting refers to hosting applications and data on local servers within an organization's physical infrastructure. It is not a feature of cloud computing.
Option 2: Incorrect. Hardware provisioning is the process of setting up and configuring the physical infrastructure required to run applications and store data. While this is an important aspect of cloud computing, it is not a specific feature of cloud computing.
Option 3: Correct. Data encryption is a feature of cloud computing that ensures the security and confidentiality of data stored and transmitted within the cloud. It protects sensitive information from unauthorized access.
Option 4: Incorrect. Physical server maintenance involves activities such as hardware repairs, upgrades, and maintenance tasks associated with physical servers. While these tasks are necessary for managing an on-premises infrastructure, they are not specific features of cloud computing.
NEW QUESTION # 156
Which of the following involves dividing a network into smaller, more manageable segments?
- A. VLAN configuration
- B. IP addressing
- C. DHCP configuration
- D. Subnetting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Subnetting is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, called subnets or subnetworks. It helps in improving network performance, optimizing address allocation, and enhancing network security. Subnetting is typically done by using a subnet mask to determine the network and host portions of an IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 157
What is the purpose of a firewall in endpoint security?
- A. Prevent unauthorized access to the endpoint
- B. Protect the endpoint from malware
- C. Encrypt the data transmitted between the endpoint and the network
- D. Monitor and detect suspicious activities on the endpoint
Answer: A
Explanation:
Firewalls are a key component of endpoint security as they help prevent unauthorized access to the endpoint. Firewalls work by examining incoming and outgoing network traffic and applying a set of rules to allow or block specific connections. By filtering and monitoring network traffic, firewalls act as a barrier between the endpoint and potential threats, such as hackers or unauthorized users, ensuring only authorized and secure connections are established.
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following is a good practice for updating documentation in a secure manner?
- A. Making updates without keeping a revision history
- B. Implementing version control and access controls
- C. Storing the documentation on a publicly accessible server
- D. Allowing multiple users to directly edit the documentation
Answer: B
Explanation:
To update documentation securely, it is advisable to implement version control mechanisms that track changes and allow reverting to previous versions if needed. Additionally, access controls should be implemented to ensure that only authorized users can modify the documentation, reducing the risk of unauthorized changes.
NEW QUESTION # 159
Which of the following is an industry-standard tool commonly used for vulnerability scanning?
- A. Apache HTTP Server
- B. Nessus
- C. Microsoft Excel
- D. MacAfee Endpoint Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Nessus is an industry-standard tool widely used for vulnerability scanning and assessment. It enables organizations to proactively identify and assess potential vulnerabilities in their network infrastructure, operating systems, and applications. Nessus offers a comprehensive set of features, including asset discovery, vulnerability detection, and detailed reporting, making it a popular choice among cybersecurity professionals.
NEW QUESTION # 160
Which of the following activities is typically associated with reconnaissance in cybersecurity?
- A. Exploiting vulnerabilities
- B. Preventing unauthorized access
- C. Gathering information about the target network
- D. Identifying vulnerable systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
Reconnaissance in cybersecurity involves gathering information about the target network, such as IP addresses, open ports, and potential vulnerabilities. This information is used to prepare for a potential attack by understanding the target's infrastructure and weaknesses.
NEW QUESTION # 161
Which technology is responsible for managing cryptographic keys, digital certificates, and providing other security-related services?
- A. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
- C. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
- D. Firewall
Answer: C
Explanation:
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a framework of hardware, software, policies, and procedures used to manage the generation, storage, distribution, and revocation of digital certificates and encryption keys. PKI provides important security services such as authentication, encryption, and integrity checking. It enables secure communication, verifies the trustworthiness of digital identities, and ensures the confidentiality and integrity of data exchanged between parties.
NEW QUESTION # 162
Why are data backups important in a cybersecurity strategy?
- A. To track changes made to critical system files
- B. To prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information
- C. To recover from physical hardware failures
- D. To analyze historical data for identifying security incidents
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data backups are essential in a cybersecurity strategy primarily to ensure the ability to recover from physical hardware failures, such as server crashes, disk failures, or natural disasters. Regularly backing up critical data helps organizations restore their systems and resume normal operations in case of hardware failures or any other catastrophic events that may result in data loss.
NEW QUESTION # 163
What is a common vulnerability in cloud-based systems?
- A. Weak passwords
- B. Lack of network segmentation
- C. Outdated antivirus software
- D. Inadequate access controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct: Inadequate access controls can leave cloud-based systems vulnerable to unauthorized access and data breaches.
Option 2: Incorrect: Outdated antivirus software is a concern for individual devices but not specific to cloud-based systems.
Option 3: Incorrect: Weak passwords can be a vulnerability but not a common one in cloud-based systems, which usually have password policies in place.
Option 4: Incorrect: Lack of network segmentation can be a vulnerability, but it is not as common as inadequate access controls.
NEW QUESTION # 164
Which technology focuses on creating rules and correlation logic to identify security incidents based on collected network data?
- A. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)
- B. Firewall
- C. IDS (Intrusion Detection System)
- D. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
Answer: A
Explanation:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) technology plays a critical role in monitoring network data to identify security incidents. SIEM solutions typically have rule-based engines and correlation logic that analyze the collected data and generate alerts or reports when specific security events or patterns are detected. By using predefined rules and correlation logic, SIEM can help identify potential security incidents and provide insights into the overall security posture of an organization's network.
NEW QUESTION # 165
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